Monday, March 4, 2019

calculus - Derivative of power series with nonnegative coefficients


Let f(x)=k=0akxk be a power series mapping reals to reals, with radius of convergence 1. Suppose f(x0) exists in (1,1] (take the one-sided limit if x0=1). Also suppose ak0 for all k. Then is it always true that f(x0)=k=0kakxk1?


This clearly holds if x0(1,1). But what about x0=1?


Answer



The answer to the question is yes. This follows from Abel's theorem, since you assume the ak (and hence kak) are positive. If you assume that kkak converges, then it is an immedeate consequence of Abel's theorem that kkakxk1 converges for x1 to kkak.


If, on the other hand, the sum does not converge, it will diverge to (since all terms are nonnegative real numbers), so the generalized Abel theorem (see the link supplied above under remarks) applies again, which states that in this case the function g(z)=kkakxk1 goes off to as well when x1. Since you assume that this is not true you are back in the first case.


What you are requesting here is a special case of what is known as 'Tauberian therom', which you could also refer to. I wonder, though, whether it's possible to give an elementary proof in this case....


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