Is the following assertion true? Justify your answer.
Suppose that we have series $\sum_{k=p}^∞ a_k$ and $\sum_{k=p}^∞ b_k$. Suppose also that $a_k = b_k$ for all but finitely many k. Then $\sum_{k=p}^∞ a_k$ converges if and only if $\sum_{k=p}^∞ b_k$ converges.
I'm really struggling to either prove/disprove this statement. Could someone please get me on the right track of starting? Is it related to subsequences or am I looking into the wrong section of this topic?
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