Let $A$ be a real, symmetric matrix. It admits the eigenvalue decomposition
$A = U \Lambda U^T$
where the eigenvectors are chosen to be orthogonal. Let $D$ be a diagonal matrix and
$B = D A D = D U \Lambda U^T D = (DU) \Lambda (DU)^T = V \Lambda V^T. \tag{$\ast$}$
Assume none of $A$, $B$, and $D$ is the identity matrix, $I$. In general, we have that
$V^T = U^T D \neq V^{-1} = U^T D^{-1}$ and
$V V^T = D^2 \neq I$.
I would like to clarify my understanding of the situation. Are the following statements correct in general?
- Eq. ($\ast$) is not an eigenvalue decomposition of $B$.
- Eq. ($\ast$) is not a diagonalization of $B$.
- $A$ and $B$ have different sets of eigenvalues, and one can say nothing about the eigenvalues of $B$ based on the knowledge of $\Lambda$.
Thank you.
Regards,
Ivan
Answer
Note that $U^T = U^{-1}$, so the congruence
$$A = U \Lambda U^T = U \Lambda U^{-1}$$
is also a similarity relation. In other words, the eigenvalue decomposition is a unitary similarity of $A$ and $\Lambda$.
Since the same cannot be said about $V := DU$, relation $(*)$ remains congruence that is not a similarity, hence it doesn't preserve the eigenvalues. However, it is a diagonalization by congruence (usually, when we say "diagonalization" without the additional "by something", we assume that it's "by similarity").
However, there is a relation between the eigenvalues of $A$ and $B$, albeit a weaker one. By Sylvester's law of inertia, if $D$ is nonsingular, then $A$ and $B$ have the same number of negative, zero, and positive eigenvalues.
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