calculus - The limit of $(n!)^{1/n}/n$ as $ntoinfty$

(Proof necessary)

$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{n}$$

I don't have an answer yet, but I know it exists, and is less than $1$.

Edit. Winther's answer is the most correct I don't understand how he is jumping from (log(n!) - nlog( n )) to it equal to the Sum from k=1 to n of log(k/n). Don't presume, it's wrong, I need to go, and I'll keep looking at it when I get back

Any help is appreciated