I'm learning combinatorics and need a little help differentiating between a combinatorial proof and an algebraic proof. Here is an example I came across:
Prove the following two formulas by combinatorial means and algebraic manipulation:
(i) For all k, n∈N with k≤n.
{n \choose 2} + {n+1 \choose 2} = n^{2}.
(ii) For all k, n \in \mathbb{N} with k \leq n.
k{n \choose k} = n{n-1 \choose k-1}.
Answer
Algebraic manipulations consist of calculation using explicit formulas. In your two examples, we have:
\binom{n}{2} + \binom{n+1}{2} = \frac{n(n-1) + (n+1)n}{2} = n^2,
and
k\binom{n}{k} = k\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} = \frac{n!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} = n\frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} = n\binom{n-1}{k-1}.
Combinatorial proofs represent both sides of the equation as counting certain objects, and then exhibit a bijection between the two sides. In your two examples, we have:
The left-hand side counts the size of two sets of ordered pairs: pairs of integers in [n] (type A), and pairs of integers in [n+1] (type B). The right-hand side counts the size of the set [n]^2. We exhibit a bijection between them in the following way:
- A pair $i
of type A is mapped to (i,j). - A pair $i
of type B with j \neq n+1 is mapped to (j,i). - A pair $i
of type B is mapped to (i,i).
- A pair $i
We can check that this is a bijection by giving the inverse mapping:
- A pair (i,j) with i < j is mapped to the pair $i
of type A. - A pair (i,j) with i > j is mapped to the pair $j of type B.
- A pair (i,i) is mapped to the pair $i
of type B.
The second example is of a somewhat different kind.
- The left-hand side counts the number of k-element subsets of [n] with a distinguished element. The right-hand side offers another way of counting the same set: first choose the distinguished element, and then choose the remaining k-1 elements out of the remaining n-1 elements. This is an example of double counting.
Another kind of proof which sometimes appears is probabilistic proofs, which are really a variant of combinatorial proofs. As an example,
\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} p^k (1-p)^{n-k} = 1
expresses the fact that if we toss n many p-biased coins, then k of them will turn up heads for exactly one value of k. (While this works only for 0 \leq p \leq 1, the general result follows since two degree n polynomials are equal whenever they agree on more than n points.)
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