Friday, May 13, 2016

real analysis - Does sin(nx)i1nfty converge in the L1 norm on [0,2pi]?

This is a homework question from a problem set in an undergraduate-level real analysis course (coming from merely an intro to analysis course) about Lp spaces.




Show that {sin(nx)}n=1 converges in the L1 norm on [0,2π]




I showed that, for fn(x)=sin(nx), the sequence of norms converges, but apparently I was supposed to show that \lVert f-f_n\rVert\to0, which I'm not really sure how to do. I'm probably missing something relatively simple, but I would appreciate the help.

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