I have come across two proofs for this on wikipedia, but I cannot wrap my head around the intuition behind this. Why should this hold?
I am looking for a possible geometric interpretation of the area under the curve.
I have come across two proofs for this on wikipedia, but I cannot wrap my head around the intuition behind this. Why should this hold?
I am looking for a possible geometric interpretation of the area under the curve.
I have injection $f \colon A \rightarrow B$ and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to $f(A)$? I know that every function i...
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