I find it hard to answer the question below. I just don't know how to use the fact that lim Maybe with limit arithmetic?
Let (a_n) be a sequence, where \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a_n}{n}=2
Is it correct that \lim_{n\to\infty}(a_n-n)=\infty
I think it is correct since from limit arithmetic I can get to the conclusion that \lim_{n\to\infty}a_n=2\lim_{n\to\infty}n
But I just can't prove it.
Thanks.
Answer
Hint: Prove that \dfrac{a_n}{n} > 1.5 for all n sufficiently large.
Solution:
Since \dfrac{a_n}{n} \to 2, taking \varepsilon=0.5, we get that \dfrac{a_n}{n} > 1.5 for all n sufficiently large. This implies that a_n-n> 0.5 n for all n sufficiently large and so a_n -n \to \infty.
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