Monday, April 23, 2018

functions - Proof Regarding an iff Statement





Let $f:X \to Y$ be a function.



Then $f$ is one-to-one iff for all subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$, $f(A\cap B) = f(A) \cap f(B)$.



Any proofs or guidance would be greatly appreciated


Answer




An incomplete proof of the --> part of the biconditional



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