Wednesday, March 21, 2018

Prove Fibonacci identity by induction


I am having trouble with the induction step of this proof, any nudges in the right direction or pointers where my reasoning is wrong are greatly appreciated.


I should prove the following equality:


For all n,n1N,n14,F0=1,F1=2,Fn=Fn1+Fn2 Fn11=2+n13i=0Fi


My work so far:


Base case n1=4: F3=2+1i=0Fi=2+F0+F1 =2+1+2 =5


IA: Assume for particular kN,k4 Fk1=2+k3i+0Fi



IS: Here I should show that this applies for k+1. F(k+1)1=2+(k+1)3i=0Fi =2+k2i=0Fi And this is where I'm a bit stuck. I think I need to show that this is the same thing as the sum for k, plus a bit...right? And that "bit" should basically be enough to get us to the next term in the Fibonacci sequence?


Because we defined the nth Fibonacci term as Fn=Fn1+Fn2, I broke up the sum for k+1 like so: (2+((k+1)1)3i=0Fi)+(2+((k+1)2)3i=0Fi) =(2+k3i=0Fi)+(2+k4i=0Fi) And then I can see that the first operand is actually the sum for k. But here I feel stuck. How do I show that the second operand is enough to get us to the term after Fk1?


Answer



Let F0=0,F1=1 and Fn+1=Fn+Fn1. Then Fn+21=nk=1Fk. I'm guessing you want to prove something along these lines. That's not too bad via induction.


Base Case: Exercise.


Induction Step: Suppose Fn+21=nk=1Fk for a natural n. Observe n+1k=1Fk=nk=1Fk+Fn+1=(Fn+21)+Fn+1=Fn+31. That's it.


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