I'm trying to prove the following inequality for 0<x<1:
erf((1+x)√ln(1+x)√(1+x)2−1)−erf(√ln(1+x)√(1+x)2−1)≥x4
Proof by WolframAlpha: http://goo.gl/15mrM
I could also construct a Proof by Mathematica, without too much trouble.
However, I'm looking for a more elegant proof of this inequality. My approach was going to involve showing that this holds for x=0 and x=1, and then show the function is concave. However, taking the second derivative yields the following monstrosity: http://goo.gl/fKxca
Is there a more elegant way to prove this? I wouldn't mind showing a weaker inequality of the form ≥xc (for some explicit c) if the proof was sufficiently simple.
Answer
I don't know if it's the elegant approach you're looking for, but here's a suggestion: fix any x0>, and define
fx0:y>0↦erf((1+y)√ln(1+x0)√(1+x0)2−1)
Now, what you want to prove is
fx0(x0)−fx0(0)≥x04
so it is sufficient to prove that for all y∈[0,2x0],
fx0(y)−fx0(0)≥y4
i.e.
fx0(y)−fx0(0)y≥14
Since fx0 is concave, you can use the usual arguments about concavity/convexity (eg, a concave function has a decreasing slope).
Does that make sense? (I'm not sure it is easy, but the whole point is "just" to reduce the problem to an actual concave function — for which (2) might be easier))
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