Prove that:limx→0ln(cosx)ln(1−x22)=1
without L'Hopital's rule.
I don't know if this is possible.
WolframAlpha agrees with this limit.
There's a similar limit without L'Hopital's rule limx→0+ln(sinx)ln(x)=1, which is easier to prove and some proofs can be seen in this question.
In limx→0+ln(sinx)ln(x)=1 you can see x→0+, which is important, but in this case ln(cosx)ln(1−x22) is an even function and we can use x→0.
I've tried some of the methods given in the linked question and none of them worked.
We could use limx→0cosx1−x22=1.
Edit: I've noticed that also
limx→0cos(cosx)cos(1−x22)=1
And also limx→0sin(cosx)sin(1−x22)=1
And also
limx→0tan(cosx)tan(1−x22)=1
And also limx→0arcsin(cosx)arcsin(1−x22)=1
Etc.
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