I have tried to do this proof for the whole day, but I still have no idea how to prove it.
Here's the question:
Let a1,a2,…,ak be integers with gcd(a1,a2,…,ak)=1, i.e., the largest
positive integer dividing all of a1,…,ak is 1.
Prove that the equation
a1u1+a2u2+⋯+akuk=1
has a solution in integers u1,u2,…,uk.
(Hint. Repeatedly apply the extended Euclidean algorithm. You may find it easier to prove a more general statement in which gcd(a1,…,ak) is allowed to be larger than 1.)
Thanks a lot.
Answer
Let d be the smallest positive integer representable as a1u1+a2u2+⋯+anun. Suppose that d>1, and let p be a prime dividing d. Let's write d=pδ. What we have so far is
a1u1+a2u2+⋯+anun=pδ
By the assumption that gcd(a1,a2,…an)=1, there is an ai not divisible by p. Without loss of generality (or by relabeling the a's), let's assume that it's a1 that's not divisible by p. This means a1x+py=1 has a solution (from the usual Euclidean algorithm). Multiplying both sides of this by δ makes this a1xδ+pδy=δ. But we can write this out as
a1(xδ+u1y)+a2(u2y)+⋯+an(uny)=δ
where δ=d/p<d, which contradicts the assumption that d is the smallest positive integer representable as a linear combination of the ai's. Thus we must have d=1.
Added later: I wasn't particularly satisfied with assuming the n=2 case of what was to be proved. It finally dawned on me the proof is just as easy if you don't. Instead of writing a1x+py=1, note simply that if p doesn't divide a1, then we can certainly write
a1−pk=r with 0<r<p
Both inequalities are important: We need the remainder r to be positive as well as less than p. Multiplying both sides of this by δ gives something that can be written out as
a1(δ−ku1)−a2(ku2)−⋯−an(kun)=rδ<pδ=d
which gives the same contradiction as before.
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