I came across this integral today in the context of inverse fourier transforms:
R(x)=12π∫∞−∞eik(x−1)ik+1dk
I know the solution is supposed to be
R(x)=θ(x−1)e−(x−1)
Where θ(x) is the Heaviside step function.
I have worked out the integral with contour integration and residual theorem for x>1 and x<1, wich work out as e−(x−1) and 0 respectively.
My problem is for x=0, where I expect to be R(0)=12. The integral would then be:
R(0)=12π∫∞−∞dkik+1
Wich i don't know how to calculate. Wolfram alpha tells me that the integral is in fact 12.
My first instinct was to multiply and divide the integrand by eik and then solve the integral by closing the contour and using the residual theorem; but the residual is −i, so it would be R(0)=1.
I know there are different definitions of the Heaviside function, and in some θ(0)=1, but we used θ(0)=12 the whole course so I find it improbable my professor would use it differently here. Also, Wolfram seems to agree that it should be 12.
First time posting, so I hope I'm following all the rules.
Answer
By completing the contour, you have
∫∞−∞dkik+1=lim
where \Gamma_R = \{Re^{it}, 0 \leq t \leq \pi\}.
The first integral converges to 2\pi i\cdot (-i) = 2\pi, as you have found yourself by the Residue theorem.
However, the second integral does not converge to 0 as you assumed for some reason. We have
\begin{align} \int_{\Gamma_R} \frac{dz}{iz+1} &= \int_0^\pi \frac{iRe^{it}}{iRe^{it}+1} \, dt = \int_{0}^\pi 1-\frac{1}{iRe^{it}+1} \, dt \to \pi-0 = \pi, \text{ as } R\to\infty. \end{align}
Hence,
\begin{align} \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dk}{ik+1} &= \frac{1}{2\pi}\lim_{R\to \infty} \left(\oint_{[-R,R] \;\cup\;\Gamma_R} \frac{dz}{iz+1}- \int_{\Gamma_R} \frac{dz}{iz+1} \right)\\ &= \frac{1}{2\pi} (2\pi - \pi) = \frac{1}{2}, \end{align}
as wanted.
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