Sunday, May 21, 2017

Show that the the linear map IL is invertible where L:VrightarrowV and L3=0. Find the invertible matrix in terms of a polynomial.



Let L:VV be a linear map such that L3=0 (i.e. L3 is the zero matrix). Show that IL is invertible and find (IL)1 in terms of a polynomial of L.




This question is giving me fits. How do I show this? Furthermore, how do I find the invertible matrix in terms of a polynomial of L? I know, by the Invertible Matrix Theorem, that the following are equivalent for an n×n square matrix:




  • A is an invertible matrix

  • A is row equivalent to the n×n identity matrix

  • A has n pivot positions.

  • Ax=0 has only the trivial solution.

  • The columns of A form a linearly independent set.

  • The linear transformation xAx is one-to-one.


  • The columns of A span Rn

  • The linear transformation xAx maps Rn onto Rn.

  • There is an n×n matrix C such that CA=I.

  • There is an n×n matrix D such that AD=I.

  • AT is an invertible matrix.



and so on.



New to linear algebra. Usually I can give a bit more in my questions.




Any help is appreciated.


Answer



Suppose



Lk=0,k1;



then consider the identity, which holds for any m1,



LmI=(LI)(m10Lj)=(LI)(Lm1+Lm2+L+I);




this equation may easily be proved (by induction on m if you like), and is quite likely familiar to the reader either from high-school algebra or the study of roots of unity in field theory. Be that as it may, with (1) in place we see that (2) becomes, with m=k,



I=(LI)(Lk1+Lk2+L+I),



which shows that IL is invertible with inverse



(IL)1=Lk1+Lk2+L+I.



The particular case at hand may be resolved by taking k=3.



No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection f:AB and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...