All is in the title:
If k2−1 is divisible by 8, how can we show that k4−1 is divisible by 16?
I can't conclude from the fact that k2−1 is divisible by 8, that then k4−1 is divisible by 16.
Answer
Hint: k4−1=(k2−1)(k2+1)=(k2−1)((k2−1)+2)
ADDED per comment: So yes, we have that if (k2−1) is divisible by 8, then k4−1=(k2−1)(k2+1)=8b(k2+1)
for some integer b.
And now, if k2−1 is divisible by 8, it is even, then so is k2+1.
That is, k2+1=(k2−1)+2=8b+2. So (k2−1)(k2+1)=8b(8b+2)=16b(4b+1)
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