I have found the following alternative proof online.
It looks amazingly elegant but I wonder if it is correct.
I mean: should it not state that (√2−1)⋅k∈N to be able to talk about a contradiction?
Doesn anybody know who thought of this proof (who should I credit)? I couldn't find a reference on the web.
Answer
The proof is correct, but you could say it's skipping over a couple of steps: In addition to pointing out that (√2−1)k∈N (because √2k∈N and k∈N), one might also want to note that 1<√2<2, so that 0<√2−1<1, which gives the contradiction 0<(√2−1)k<k.
As for the source of the proof, you might try looking at the references in an article on the square root of 2 by Martin Gardner, which appeared in Math Horizons in 1997.
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