One of my teachers argued today that 0^0 = 1. However, WolframAlpha, intuition(?) and various other sources say otherwise... 0^0 doesn't really "mean" anything..
can anyone clear this up with some rigorous explanation?
Answer
Short answer: It depends on your convention and how you define exponents.
Long answer: There are a number of ways of defining exponents. Usually these definitions coincide, but this is not so for 00: some definitions yield 00=1 and some don't apply when both numbers are zero (leaving 00 undefined).
For example, given nonnegative whole numbers m and n, we can define mn to be the number of functions A→B, where A is a set of size n and B is a set of size m. This definition gives 00=1 because the only set of size 0 is the empty set ∅, and the only function ∅→∅ is the empty function.
However, an analyst might not want 00 to be defined. Why? Becuase look at the limits of the following functions:
lim
All three limits look like 0^0. So when this is desired, you might want to leave 0^0 undefined, so that it's a lack of definition rather than a discontinuity.
Typically this is resolved by:
- If you're in a discrete setting, e.g. considering sets, graphs, integers, and so on, then you should take 0^0=1.
- If you're in a continuous setting, e.g. considering functions on the real line or complex plane, then you should take 0^0 to be undefined.
Sometimes these situations overlap. For example, usually when you define functions by infinite series
f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_nx^n
problems occur when you want to know the value of f(0). It is normal in these cases to take 0^0=1, so that f(0)=a_0; the reason being that we're considering what happens as x \to 0, and this corresponds with \lim_{x \to 0} x^0 = 1.
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