I want to do the problem without using L'Hopitals rule, I have
1sin(x)−1arcsin(x)=xsin(x)xarcsin(x)sin(x)−arcsin(x)x2
and I'm not quite sure about how to deal with the sin(x)−arcsin(x)x2, apparently its limit is 0? In which case the whole limit would be 0. But how would I show this without using l'Hopitals rule. Thanks for any help.
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