I'm practising solving some limits and, currently, I'm trying to solve $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}{\left({{(x!)^2}\over{(2x)!}}\right)}$.
What I have done:
- I have attempted to simplify the fraction until I've reached an easier one to solve, however, I'm currently stuck at the following:
$$
\lim_{x→\infty}{\left({{(x!)^2}\over{(2x)!}}\right)}=
\lim_{x→\infty}{\left({{(\prod_{i=1}^{x}i)^2}\over{\prod_{i=1}^{2x}i}}\right)}=
\lim_{x→\infty}{\left({
{
{\prod_{i=1}^{x}i}\cdot{\prod_{i=1}^{x}i}
}\over{
{
{\prod_{i=1}^{x}}i}\cdot{\prod_{i=x+1}^{2x}i}
}
}\right)}=
\lim_{x→\infty}{\left({
{\prod_{i=1}^{x}i}\over{
{\prod_{i=x+1}^{2x}i}}
}\right)}.
$$
- Instinctively, I can see that the limit is equal to $0$, since the numerator is always less than the denominator, thus approaching infinity slower as $x→\infty$.
Question:
- How can I continue solving the above limit w/o resorting to instinct to determine it equals $0$ ?
- If the above solution can't go any further, is there a better way to approach this problem?
Answer
Continuing from what you have mentioned,
$$0 \le \lim_{x\to\infty}{\left({
{\prod_{i=1}^{x}i}\over{
{\prod_{i=x+1}^{2x}i}}
}\right)} = \lim_{x\to\infty}\prod_{i=1}^{x}\frac{i}{i+x} \le \lim_{x\to\infty}\prod_{i=1}^{x}\frac{x}{x+x} = \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{2^x}=0.$$
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