I have to find the limit without L'hopital's rule:
limx→0ln(x2+1)x2
Is it possible?
I thought about using squeeze theorem or something, but it didn't work out.
Hints are more than welcome!
P.S - I didn't study Taylor series or Integrals yet.
Answer
limx→0ln(x2+1)x2=limx→0ln(x2+1)1x2=ln(limx→0(x2+1)1x2)=lne=1
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