Friday, January 8, 2016

calculus - Show f is uniformly continuous




Let f continuous function on [0,). Lets assume there are a,b such that:
limxf(x)(ax+b)=0. Prove f is uniformly continuous on [0,).





Well, At infinity f is getting equal to a linear funciton. I can sense the ideal option is to show that f is Lipchitz and therefore unifromly continuous. I wasn't able to formalize this thought.



I'll be glad for help how to show that.
Thanks.


Answer



Let ϵ>0, then by definition of
limxf(x)(ax+b)=0,


there is some x0R such that |f(y)(ay+b)|<ϵ3 for every y>x0. In particular for every y,z>x0 such that |yz|<ϵ3|a| it holds
|f(y)f(z)|=|f(y)(ay+b)+(ay+b)(az+b)+(az+b)f(z)||f(y)(ay+b)|+|(ay+b)(az+b)|=|a||yz|+|(az+b)f(z)|<ϵ3+|a|ϵ3|a|+ϵ3=ϵ




Now, since f is continuous on [0,) it is in particular continuous on the compact set [0,x0+1] and thus uniformly continuous on [0,x0+1]. Thus for every y,z[0,x0+1], there is some δ0>0 such that |yz|<δ0 implies |f(y)f(z)|<ϵ. We finally get that for every y,zR such that |yz|<δ:=min{δ0,ϵ3|a|,12}

we must have |f(y)f(z)|<ϵ,

since |yz|<1/2 implies y,z[0,x0+1] or y,z>x0.



Edit:




Where did the 1/2 come from?




This is in order to guarantee that if |yz|<1/2 then both y,z are in one of these intervals [0,x0+1] or ]x0,). Without loss of generality we may suppose yz. If zx0+1 then y,z[0,x0+1]. If z>x0+1 then using zy1/2 we know yz1/2>x0+1/2 which imply that z,y]x0,). Note that we could have taken [0,x0+r] instead of [0,x0+1] and δ:=min{δ0,ϵ3|a|,r} for any r>0. The important thing is that the intersection [0,x0+r][x0,) contains an open interval.



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