It is visible the left side is bigger simply because it's a higher power but calculating the first derivatives leads back to almost the same inequivalence. I tried to prove it with induction which also didn't quite lead anywhere. Any ideas?
Edit: c is some constant. If it's a problem, use c=3 (it's slightly less I believe but definitely >2).
Answer
If you mean to prove it for x>e, so prove that f(x)=lnxx is a decreasing function for x>e.
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