It is visible the left side is bigger simply because it's a higher power but calculating the first derivatives leads back to almost the same inequivalence. I tried to prove it with induction which also didn't quite lead anywhere. Any ideas?
Edit: c is some constant. If it's a problem, use c=3 (it's slightly less I believe but definitely >2).
Answer
If you mean to prove it for $x>e$, so prove that $f(x)=\frac{\ln x}{x}$ is a decreasing function for $x>e$.
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