Suppose xn is the only positive solution to the equation x−n=∞∑k=1(x+k)−n,how to show the existence of the limit limn→∞xnn?
It is easy to see that {xn} is increasing.In fact, the given euation equals
1=∞∑k=1(1+kx)−n
If xn≥xn+1,then notice that for any fixedk,(1+kx)−n is increasing,thus we can get
1(1+kxn)n≥1(1+kxn+1)n>1(1+kxn+1)n+1
By summing up all k's from 1 to ∞,we can see
∞∑k=11(1+kxn)n>∞∑k=11(1+kxn+1)n+1
then from (∗) we see that the two series in the above equality are all equals to 1,witch is a contradiction!
But it seems hard for us to show the existence of limn→∞xnn.What I can see by the area's principle is
|∞∑k=11(1+kxn)n−∫∞11(1+xxn)dx|<1(1+1xn)n
or
|1−xnn−1(1+1xn)1−n|<1(1+1xn)n
Answer
For any n≥2, consider the function Φn(x)=∞∑k=1(xx+k)n.
It is easy to see Φn(x) is an increasing function over (0,∞].
For small x, it is bounded from above by xnζ(n) and hence decreases to 0 as x→0.
For large x, we can approximate the sum by an integral and Φn(x) diverges like xn−1 as x→∞. By definition, xn is the unique root for Φn(xn)=1. Let yn=xnn.
For any α>0, apply AM ≥ GM to n copies of 1+αn and one copy of 1, we obtain
(1+αn)n/n+1>1n+1[n(1+αn)+1]=1+αn+1
The inequality is strict because the n+1 numbers are not identical. Taking reciprocal on both sides, we get
(nn+α)n≥(n+1n+1+α)n+1
Replace α by kyn for generic positive integer k, we obtain
(xnxn+k)n=(nynnyn+k)n>((n+1)yn(n+1)yn+k)n+1
Summing over k and using definition of xn, we find
Φn+1(xn+1)=1=Φn(xn)>Φn+1((n+1)yn)
Since Φn+1 is increasing, we obtain xn+1>(n+1)yn⟺yn+1>yn.
This means yn is an increasing sequence.
We are going to show yn is bounded from above by 32
(see update below for a more elementary and better upper bound).
For simplicity, let us abberivate xn and yn as x and y. By their definition, we have
2xn=∞∑k=01(x+k)n
By Abel-Plana formula, we can transform the sum on RHS to integrals. The end result is
32xn=∫∞0dk(x+k)n+i∫∞0(x+it)−n−(x−it)−ne2πt−1dt=1(n−1)xn−1+1xn−1∫∞0(1+is)−n−(1−is)−ne2πxs−1ds
Multiply both sides by nxn−1 and replace s by s/n, we obtain
32y−nn−1=i∫∞0(1+isn)−n−(1−isn)−ne2πys−1ds=2∫∞0sin(ntan−1(sn))(1+t2n2)n/2dse2πys−1
For the integral on RHS, if we want its integrand to be negative, we need
ntan−1(sn)>π⟹sn>tan(πn)⟹s>π
By the time s reaches π, the factor 1e2πys−1 already drops to very small. Numerically, we know y4>1, so for n≥4 and s≥π, we have
1e2πys−1≤1e2π2−1≈2.675×10−9
This implies the integral is positive. For n≥4, we can deduce
32y≥nn−1⟹yn≤32(1−1n)<32
Since yn is increasing and bounded from above by 32, limit
y∞def=limn→∞yn exists and ≤32.
For fixed y>0, with help of DCT, one can show the last integral of (∗1)
converges.
This suggests y∞ is a root of following equation near 32
32y=1+2∫∞0sin(s)e2πys−1ds
According to DLMF,
∫∞0e−xsin(ax)sinhxdx=π2coth(πa2)−1a for a≠0
We can transform our equation to
32y=1+2[14ycoth(12y)−12]⟺coth(12y)=3
This leads to y∞=1log2.
This is consistent with the finding of another answer (currently deleted):
If L∞=limn→∞nxn exists, then L∞=log2.
To summarize, the limit xnn exists and should equal to 1log2.
Update
It turns out there is a more elementary proof that yn is bounded from above by the optimal bound 1log2.
Recall for any α>0. we have 1+α<eα. Substitute
α by knlog2 for n≥2 and k≥1, we get
nn+klog2=11+knlog2>e−knlog2=2−kn
This leads to
Φn(nlog2)=∞∑k=1(nn+log2k)n>∞∑k=12−k=1=Φn(xn)
Since Φn(x) is increasing, this means
nlog2>xn and yn is bounded from above by 1log2.
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