Solving some problems regarding limits and sequence convergence, i stumbled upon a task, and it's solution relies on, and i quote: "We now use a well-known theorem :
limn→+∞n√a1a2…an=limn→+∞an
This isn't really intuitive (at least to me) and I don't know how to prove it.
The original task was to find the limit of
limn→+∞n√(1+11)(1+12)2…(1+1n)n
which of course, using the expression above is just e.
Answer
Take the logarithm of both sides. Then you want to prove
limn→∞1nn∑1ai=limn→∞an.
This is a standard result about Cesàro means.
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