Basically, I tried proving that multiplying an odd and even number together gives you an even number to a friend of mine. This is what I said.
Let's first take a random number k. It doesn't matter if its odd or even. If we then multiply this by 2, we get an even number (from the definition of a even number, which is basically a number that can be divided by 2). Now we know that in the number line, it goes odd, even, odd, even,..., and so if we add 1 to this, then we get an odd number. We now have an odd number and an even number and so lets multiply them.
2k⋅(2k+1)=2k(2k+1)=4k2+2k)=2(2k2+k)
We now have a random number (2k2+k) multiplied by 2 and so this is an even number (by definition of an even number).
My friend then said that we make the assumption that 2k±1 is odd because the number line alternates between odd and even numbers, how do know that this is true?
I was thinking how to prove this. Would it be by some form of induction?
EDIT: I think I need to change "number" to "integer" in this post don't I?
Answer
I wouldn't appeal to the fact that the integers alternate between even and odd.
I would say this:
An even number is defined as any integer of the form 2k for k any integer (maybe excluding k=0).
An odd number is defined as any integer of the form 2k+1 for any integer k.
You can just take this as the definition. And then (as you have) the proof that even times odd is even is just
2k(2k′+1)=2[k(2k′+1)]
where of course k(2k′+1) is just an integer.
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