In the expression $\frac{1}{b}\pmod m$, where $(b,m)=1$, is $\frac{1}{b}$:
a) a rational number (and so rational numbers are defined in modulo arithmetic using multiplicative inverses)?
b) just created notation for $($the inverse of $b)\pmod m$ that looks like division just to confuse us (and is used because of similarities between division and division $\pmod m$)? (same for $b^{−1}$)
Is it a) or b)?
Here it says it is a).
Bill Dubuque from M.SE seemingly claims it is b). So does a comment here, also this blog.
Edit: now that I thought about it, either
1) the notation $\frac{a}{b}$
2) or the definition $a\equiv b\pmod {m}\iff m\mid a-b$
is misleading. 1) seems a lot more likely, since I'm not sure how the $\bmod$ function could be defined otherwise.
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