In the expression 1b(modm), where (b,m)=1, is 1b:
a) a rational number (and so rational numbers are defined in modulo arithmetic using multiplicative inverses)?
b) just created notation for (the inverse of b)(modm) that looks like division just to confuse us (and is used because of similarities between division and division (modm))? (same for b−1)
Is it a) or b)?
Here it says it is a).
Bill Dubuque from M.SE seemingly claims it is b). So does a comment here, also this blog.
Edit: now that I thought about it, either
1) the notation ab
2) or the definition a≡b(modm)⟺m∣a−b
is misleading. 1) seems a lot more likely, since I'm not sure how the mod function could be defined otherwise.
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