In the expression \frac{1}{b}\pmod m, where (b,m)=1, is \frac{1}{b}:
a) a rational number (and so rational numbers are defined in modulo arithmetic using multiplicative inverses)?
b) just created notation for (the inverse of b)\pmod m that looks like division just to confuse us (and is used because of similarities between division and division \pmod m)? (same for b^{−1})
Is it a) or b)?
Here it says it is a).
Bill Dubuque from M.SE seemingly claims it is b). So does a comment here, also this blog.
Edit: now that I thought about it, either
1) the notation \frac{a}{b}
2) or the definition a\equiv b\pmod {m}\iff m\mid a-b
is misleading. 1) seems a lot more likely, since I'm not sure how the \bmod function could be defined otherwise.
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