Wednesday, December 2, 2015

notation - Is modular arithmetic defined for all rational numbers (with denominators coprime to modulus)?

In the expression \frac{1}{b}\pmod m, where (b,m)=1, is \frac{1}{b}:



a) a rational number (and so rational numbers are defined in modulo arithmetic using multiplicative inverses)?



b) just created notation for (the inverse of b)\pmod m that looks like division just to confuse us (and is used because of similarities between division and division \pmod m)? (same for b^{−1})




Is it a) or b)?



Here it says it is a).



Bill Dubuque from M.SE seemingly claims it is b). So does a comment here, also this blog.






Edit: now that I thought about it, either




1) the notation \frac{a}{b}



2) or the definition a\equiv b\pmod {m}\iff m\mid a-b



is misleading. 1) seems a lot more likely, since I'm not sure how the \bmod function could be defined otherwise.

No comments:

Post a Comment

analysis - Injection, making bijection

I have injection f \colon A \rightarrow B and I want to get bijection. Can I just resting codomain to f(A)? I know that every function i...