So, I was given the following problem as part of a homework assignment.
Suppose f′(x)>0 in (a,b). Prove that f is strictly increasing in (a,b), and let g be its inverse function. Prove that g is differentiable, and that
g′(f(x))=1f′(x)
I have proven that f is strictly increasing in (a,b), and I could prove that g′(f(x))=1/f′(x) if I could prove that g is differentiable. The problem is that I am having trouble with a proof of that. Any advice?
Also, as a reference, this is exercise 5.2 from Baby Rudin.
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