Wednesday, June 5, 2019

probability - Explain why E(X)=inti0nfty(1FX(t)),dt for every nonnegative random variable X





Let X be a non-negative random variable and FX the corresponding CDF. Show,
E(X)=0(1FX(t))dt
when X has : a) a discrete distribution, b) a continuous distribution.




I assumed that for the case of a continuous distribution, since FX(t)=P(Xt), then 1FX(t)=1P(Xt)=P(X>t). Although how useful integrating that is, I really have no idea.


Answer



For every nonnegative random variable X, whether discrete or continuous or a mix of these,
X=X0dt=+01X>tdt=+01Xtdt,
hence




E(X)=+0P(X>t)dt=+0P(Xt)dt.








Likewise, for every p>0, Xp=X0ptp1dt=+01X>tptp1dt=+01Xtptp1dt,
hence




E(Xp)=+0ptp1P(X>t)dt=+0ptp1P(Xt)dt.




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