Here is my try:
We know that $\lim\limits_{y\rightarrow 0} y = 0$, so define $y=\frac{1}{x}$, then:
$\lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{x} = \lim\limits_{y\rightarrow 0}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{y}}= \lim\limits_{y \rightarrow 0} 1 \frac{y}{1}=\lim\limits_{y \rightarrow 0} y = 0$
Is my argument correct? I don't know if it's right or wrong.
If it's ok, how do I justify each step?
If it's wrong, which step is illegal?
Thanks.
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