I have been studying for the upcoming Introductory Real Analysis exam and got stuck upon the proof of the second derivative test. Here is a verbatim text of the theorem and the proof from the book:
THEOREM:
Let I be an open interval containing the point x0 and suppose that the function f:I→R has a second derivative. Suppose that f′(x0)=0. If f″, then x_0 is a local minimizer of f:I \rightarrow R.
PROOF:
Since
f''(x_0)=\lim_{x\to{x_0}} \frac{f'(x)-f'(x_0)}{x-x_0}>0, it follows (see Exercise 16) that there is a \delta>0 such that the open interval (x_0-\delta, x_0+\delta) is contained in I and \frac{f'(x)-f'(x_0)}{x-x_0}>0 if 0<|x-x_0|<\delta. But f'(x_0)=0, so the (4.13) [preceding inequality] amounts to the assertion that if |x-x_0|<\delta, then f'(x)>0 \text{ if } x>x_0 and $f'(x)<0 \text{ if } x
The textbook states the Lagrange Mean Value Theorem as follows:
Suppose the function f:[a,b] \rightarrow R is continuous and f: (a,b) \rightarrow R is differentiable. Then there is a point x_0 in the open interval (a,b) at which f'(x_0)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}.
Luckily I was able to solve 'Exercise 16,' but I just don't see how I can apply the Lagrange Mean Value Theorem in the latter parts of the proof. Any small hints would be appreciated. Thanks in advanced.
Answer
First, apply your MVT to the interval I=(x_0,x_0+\delta). Take an x\in I. The MVT says that there is a $c, x_0
f'(c)=\frac{f(x)-f(x_0)}{x-x_0} .
Since f'(c) >0 (it's one of your inequalities), then f(x)>f(x_0). A similar argument holds for the interval I'=(x_0-\delta,x_0).
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