For $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^m$, if $f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)$ for then for rational $c$, how would you show that $f(cx) = cf(x)$ holds?
I tried that for $c = \frac{a}{b}$, $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}$ clearly $$ f\left(\frac{a}{b}x\right) = f\left(\frac{x}{b}+\dots+\frac{x}{b}\right) = af\left(\frac{x}{b}\right) $$ but I can't seem to finish it, any help?
Answer
Try computing $bf(x/b){}{}{}$.
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