I have some difficulties in understanding the proof of "√2is irrational" by contradiction. I am reading it in 10th class(in India) Mathematics book( available online, here )
This is the snapshot of it:
The proof starts with assuming that √2 can be written as a ratio of two integers and then that this fraction can be reduced to its lowest terms i.e. √2=ab, where gcd(a,b)=1 . Then at last we reach at the contradiction that gcd(a,b)≠1. Then they say that because of this contradiction √2 cannot be a rational number.
What I do not understand is that how the contradiction proves that √2 cannot be a rational number. The contradiction only proves that √2 cannot be written as the ratio of two coprime numbers. But can't we write √2 as the ratio of two non-coprime numbers?
Let us consider two statements, X and Y as:
X: √2 cannot be written as the ratio of two coprime numbers.
Y: √2 cannot be written as the ratio of two non-coprime numbers.
The contradiction proves only the statement X not the statement Y.
I guess that we can prove statement Y from X as:
Let us suppose that √2 can be written as the ratio of two non-coprime numbers, i.e. √2=RS, where R and S are mutually non-coprime. But every rational number can be written as a fraction in lowest terms. So let's say RS in its lowest terms is rs, but this means that √2 is also equal to rs, where r and s are coprime. This eventually contradicts the statement X, hence by contradiction √2 cannot be written as the ratio of two non-coprime numbers, or the statement Y is true.
Question:
1. Did I prove the statement Y from X correctly ?
2. Why does the book directly mention "√2 is irrational" without justifying statement Y? Is the justification too trivial to be mentioned?
3. Is there any other way than mine(proof by contradiction) to deduce Y from X?
I only want to clarify these three doubts, nothing else.
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