Problem is that Suppose f is differentiable everywhere and f(x+y)=f(x)f(y) for all x,y . Show that f′(x)=f′(0)f(x) and determine the value of f′(0).
I can show f′(x)=f′(0)f(x)
but i don't know how to determine the value of f′(0).
Please help!
Answer
It's impossible to determine the value of f′(0) from the information given - perhaps you left something out, perhaps the question was stated somewhat differently, or perhaps it's a bad question.
If a is any real number and f(t)=eat then f is differentiable, f(x+y)=f(x)f(y), and f′(0)=a. So the information given literally says nothing at all about the value of f′(0); that value can be anything.
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