We know $$i^2=-1 $$then why does this happen? $$ i^2 = \sqrt{-1}\times\sqrt{-1} $$ $$ =\sqrt{-1\times-1} $$ $$ =\sqrt{1} $$ $$ = 1 $$
EDIT: I see this has been dealt with before but at least with this answer I'm not making the fundamental mistake of assuming an incorrect definition of $i^2$.
Answer
From $i^2=-1$ you cannot conclude that $i=\sqrt{-1}$, just like from $(-2)^2 = 4$ you cannot conclude that $-2=\sqrt 4$. The symbol $\sqrt a$ is by definition the positive square root of $a$ and is only defined for $a\ge0$.
It is said that even Euler got confused with $\sqrt{ab} = \sqrt{a}\,\sqrt{b}$. Or did he? See Euler's "mistake''? The radical product rule in historical perspective (Amer. Math. Monthly 114 (2007), no. 4, 273–285).
No comments:
Post a Comment