There is a very simple proof by means of divisibility that √2 is irrational. I have to prove that √3 is irrational too, as a homework. I have done it as follows, ad absurdum:
Suppose
√3=pq
with p/q irreducible, then
3q2=p22q2=p2−q22q2=(p+q)(p−q)
Now I exploit the fact that p and q can't be both even, so it is the case that they are either both odd, or have different parity. Suppose then that p=2n+1 and q=2m+1
Then it is the case that
p−q=2(n−m)p+q=2(m+n+1)
Which means that
2q2=4(m−n)(m+n+1)q2=2(m−n)(m+n+1)
Then q2 is even, and so is then q, which is absurd. Similarly, suppose
q=2n and p=2m+1.
Then p+q=2(m+n)+1 and p−q=2(m−n)+1. So it is the case that
2q2=(2(m−n)+1)(2(m+n)+1)2q2=4(m2+m−n2)+1
So 2q2 is odd, which is then absurd.
Is this valid?
Answer
It works, but can be simplified: mod 2:p≡p2=3q2≡q, so p,q, being coprime, are odd. mod 4: odd≡±1, so odd2≡1, so 1≡p2=3q2≡3 ⇒ 4|3−1⇒⇐
No comments:
Post a Comment