I need some help proving the following statement:
[EDIT]: forgot to mention that:
an≥0 , L≥0.
If the limit of a sequence lim n→∞an=L,
then, for any k∈N, the limit of the sequence limn→∞k√an=k√L.
I already proved that every sequence {an}k converges to Lk by induction step,
but when I tried the same for {1/k}, it just doesn't work.
Answer
Let an≥0 for all n≥1, so that, if an→L, then L≥0. This allows a1/kn to be meaningful for all n,k≥1.
Let k≥1. If L=0, then the statement is obvious; for, we have an<ε iff a1/kn<ε1/k. Suppose L>0. Then there is some N1≥1 such that an>0 for all n≥N1. If n≥N1, then
|a1/kn−L1/k|=|an−L|∑k−1j=0ajknLk−1−jk.
On the other hand, there is some N2≥N1 such that n≥N2 implies
|an−L|<L/2, implying L/2<an, implying that
k−1∑j=0ajknLk−1−jk>Lk−1k/k−1∑j=02jk=:M.
If ε>0, then there is some N3≥N2 such that n≥N3 implies |an−L|<Mε.
We have proved that, for every ε>0, there is some N≥1 such that n≥N implies |a1/kn−L1/k|<ε.
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