Monday, October 15, 2018

summation - Why sumii=0nftyi2pi1=sumii=0nftyi(fracddppi1)?



I'm going through a proof right now and am having trouble figuring out the math behind one line. It says:




i=0i2pi1=i=0i(ddppi)



I know this question is vague but can anybody explain why this is the case?


Answer



First of all, the summation notation is unnecessary and irrelevant. Remove it and we get
i2pi1=i(ddppi)
Okay. Recall the formula
ddxxk=kxk1,k0
Then we have that

ddppi=ipi1,i0
and so, by substitution, we have
i(ddppi)=i(ddppi)
i(ddppi)=i(ipi1)
i(ddppi)=i2pi1
Does that answer your question?


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