Consider integrating f(z)=√1−z2 with a branch cut of [−1,1] around the following contour.
γ1:[−1,1]→C,t↦t+ϵi
γ2:[−π/2,π/2]→C,t↦1+ϵe−it
γ3:[−1,1]→C,t↦−t−ϵi
γ4:[−3π/2,−π/2]→C,t↦−1+ϵe−it
As ϵ tends to 0 we have that ∫γ2f(z)dz and ∫γ4f(z)dz tend to 0.
Now, ∫γ1f(z)dz tends to ∫1−1√1−x2dx:=I and also ∫γ3f(z)dz also tends to I (one minus sign from being on the other side of the branch cut, another one from reversing the lower/upper limits).
Now I=π/2
So the integral around the closed contour limϵ→0∫γ1+γ2+γ3+γ4f(z)dz=π
Note that f is analytic in C∖[−1,1] with our choice of branch cut and so we can consider the contour integral around γ=γ1+γ2+γ3+γ4 as a closed contour around infinity.
i.e. ∫γf(z)dz=−2πiRes[f,z=∞]
(−2πi instead of 2πi because we are going clockwise around infinity.)
Now, Res[f,z=∞]=Res[√1−1/z2,z=0]=limz→0z√1−1/z2=limz→0√z2−1=i
So ∫γf(z)dz=−2πi(i)=2π
And the two results do not agree. I am not confident my arguments about the pole at infinity. What exactly did I do wrong there?
No comments:
Post a Comment