Prove via induction that $\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i}{(i+1)!}=1- \frac{1}{(n+1)!}$
Having a very difficult time with this proof, have done pages of work but I keep ending up with 1/(k+2). Not sure when to apply the induction hypothesis and how to get the result $1- \frac{1}{(n+2)!}$. Please help!
thanks guys, youre the greatest!
No comments:
Post a Comment