I want to do the problem without using L'Hopitals rule, I have
$$\frac{1}{\sin(x)}- \frac{1}{\arcsin(x)} = \frac{x}{\sin(x)}\frac{x}{\arcsin(x)}\frac{\sin(x)-\arcsin(x)}{x^2}$$
and I'm not quite sure about how to deal with the $\dfrac{\sin(x)-\arcsin(x)}{x^2}$, apparently its limit is $0$? In which case the whole limit would be $0$. But how would I show this without using l'Hopitals rule. Thanks for any help.
No comments:
Post a Comment